Lexicon Valley from Booksmart Studios

Lexicon Valley from Booksmart Studios

Share this post

Lexicon Valley from Booksmart Studios
Lexicon Valley from Booksmart Studios
Why Did People "Ejaculate" in Old Books?
Q&A

Why Did People "Ejaculate" in Old Books?

Also, is our 's for possessives just a shortened form of "his"?

John McWhorter's avatar
John McWhorter
Jul 26, 2023
∙ Paid
8

Share this post

Lexicon Valley from Booksmart Studios
Lexicon Valley from Booksmart Studios
Why Did People "Ejaculate" in Old Books?
3
1
Share
Twelfth Night celebrations In London, next to the Globe Theater.

Bob Woolley is reading Shakespeare’s “Twelfth Night,” and in Act 3 Scene 3 came across this passage:

Once in a sea fight ’gainst the Count his galleys
I did some service,

He notes that his annotated edition says that “Count his” simply means “Count’s,” and wonders, as many have, whether our “apostrophe-s” is short for his.

Keep reading with a 7-day free trial

Subscribe to Lexicon Valley from Booksmart Studios to keep reading this post and get 7 days of free access to the full post archives.

Already a paid subscriber? Sign in
© 2025 Lexicon Valley
Privacy ∙ Terms ∙ Collection notice
Start writingGet the app
Substack is the home for great culture

Share